This post was prompted mostly by the myth that Israel spoke Aramaic in much of ancient times. There is even a saying that Paul was speaking Aramaic in Acts 22 and the KJV translators erroneously translated it to Hebrew.
This is not what the Bible states, nor is it what archaeological finding suggest.
Anthropologically speaking, all artifacts found around Israel that relates to the Jews are written in Hebrew.
The Old Testament was written by Hebrew Priests and Prophets in the Jewish language (Hebrew), with the exception of most of the chapters in Daniel. The reason offered, for the book of Daniel being in Aramaic, is that in 606 BC Nebuchadnezzar the king of Babylon came in and took the Jews captive to Babylon. Daniel and other young Jewish men were placed in the king's service and taught the King's language during that time (Daniel 1:1-4). Since the king of Babylon spoke Aramaic, that became the default language of Daniel. Another portion of Scripture came to mind as I studied [I believe the Scripture was brought to mind by the Holy Spirit, to whom I turn, first and foremost, for understanding of the Scriptures (John 16:12-14)]; God told Daniel (12:8-10) that the prophecy of his visions was to be sealed from man’s understanding until “the time of the end“.
When the Jews were in bondage in Egypt, when they were living in Ancient Israel, when they were in captivity in Assyria, Babylon, and during the Roman occupation of the land of Israel, the Hebrew people spoke both their Hebrew language and the language of their oppressors/conquerors. This continued through the dark ages and until present time. The Jewish people in the dispersion spoke both Hebrew and the language of the country in which they lived. Russian Jews spoke both Russian and Hebrew. German Jews spoke both German and Hebrew. American Jews spoke both English and Hebrew. For devout Jews, this is still true.
Mr Miller was a Jew in the concentration camps of Germany during World War II. Being an orthodox, he was only allowed to read the Scriptures in Hebrew. When he explained to his Rabbi that they were unavailable to him in that language, the Rabbi said that he could read the King James Version of the Old Testament because it was the closest translation to the originals. He was forbidden to read the New Testament. Through God's mercy, and his own piqued curiosity, he did eventually read the New Testament and came to know Christ as his Savior.
Why would they be forbidden to read the Bible in any language except Hebrew if it had been originally translated into Aramaic? Why would the KJV English be the preferred translation if it was erroneously translated?
What archaeological findings have there been? Here are a few.
An 11-year-old girl found the rare coin while sifting through ancient dirt during a family-friendly “archaeological experience” done in coordination with the City of David and Emek Tzurim National Park in Jerusalem. The coin was engraved with “Second Year,” indicating that it was used during the second year of the Great Revolt of the Jews against the Roman empire between 67-68 AD. On the other side of the coin is an inscription marking the headquarters of the High Priest, and next to it appears in ancient Hebrew the words, “Holy Jerusalem.” It is marked on one side with a cup and the letters “shin” and “bet,” indicating it was minted during the second year of the uprising (67 or 68 AD)
The En-Gedi Scroll is an ancient Hebrew parchment found in 1970 at Ein Gedi, Israel. Carbon-14 tests had dated the scroll to between 210-390 AD. Paleographic analysis of the style of writing used suggests a first-century date between 50-100 AD. This scroll was discovered to contain a portion of the biblical Book of Leviticus. Michael Segal of the Hebrew University of Jerusalem described the scroll as being the earliest evidence of the exact form of the Masoretic Text (Hebrew and Aramaic text).
Third generation archaeologist Eilat Mazar, of Hebrew University, discovered an unusual cache of gold coins and other related artefacts, dating to the seventh century AD. This is especially significant because it points to a Jewish presence in the area at the time. Mazar points out the chain on the medallion as a clue to its original use. She explains it was likely an ornament for a Torah scroll. Given the date of the items and the manner in which they were found, Mazar estimates they were abandoned in the context of the Persian conquest of Jerusalem in 614 AD.
The idea that Aramaic was the prevalent language of the Jews is a fallacy brought about by “scholarly” people who wanted to prove that they were more smarter and more ‘godly’ than our ancestors. The original translators of the King James Bible were highly educated men who spoke many languages including Hebrew, Greek, Latin, and more. They were humble and believed not only in the mercy, love, and grace of God; they also wisely feared the wrath and judgement of THE holy and righteous God that created all things and holds each man accountable to his his written word (Bible, Holy Scriptures) and his Word who became flesh, the only BEGOTTEN Son of God, The Lord Jesus Christ. So, they collaborated humbly and in sincerity, for years, to determine the translation of each and every text, as they were led by the Holy Spirit. Research just how amazingly smart and well-educated these men were, yet read their own testimony (in the preface of the King James Bible) of humility before God! Compare that to the arrogance of the self-declared wise and “godly” men who offer “better word” choices and ‘what God was trying to say’ doctrines, based on their own touted scholarship - NOT on the leading of the Holy Spirit. Not to mention the myriad words, phrases, and entire verses left out of the modern translations show that it was not the leading of the Lord, nor of His will to remove certain parts of Scripture that mankind today would find offensive.
Going back to the historical and anthropological evidence, I pose the following queries.
*Why would the Jewish people retain their language throughout 400 years in Egypt and during all the years of being in subjection to multiple Palestinian nations, only to lose it in the Babylonian captivity?
*Why would Jews speak Aramaic throughout the Roman occupation when the Romans forced their subjects to speak Koine (pronounced, coin-A) Greek? Is that not a repeated Satanic attempt to destroy God’s chosen nation by forcing assimilation into a strange/foreign (Gentile) culture (Exodus 11:7, Deuteronomy 7:6-8, 1 Kings 8:53, Ezra 10:11)?
*Finally, why would the Jews, so proud their lineage (sons of Abraham), pick up the Greek language during the Roman occupation and abandon the language that their ancestors spoke for almost a thousand years, only to pick Hebrew back up when they dispersed into other countries? They would not, and they did not. Jews spoke their Hebrew language from the days of Abraham, as well as the language of any people who were in power at any given time.